egabrum
July 19th, 2010, 10:11 AM
Hello all,
Say that you have to units (power supplies) working in parallel. The availability of each units is A1=A2=0.5 (50%). Therefore, the total system availability is A=1-W1*W2= 1-(1-0.5)*(1-0.5)=0.75
But, although both units are running in parallel (not stand-by), only one of them is connected to the load at a time. That is, there is a manual switch no connect the 2nd unit whenever the 1st unit fails. Therefore, there is a “time to switch”=X downtime and the real availability is less than 0.75
Do you guys know how can I calculate analytically the real availability of the system if I know the “time to switch” time? I al looking for a general solution, not the specific solution for the 1+1, 50%+50% case.
Thanks
Say that you have to units (power supplies) working in parallel. The availability of each units is A1=A2=0.5 (50%). Therefore, the total system availability is A=1-W1*W2= 1-(1-0.5)*(1-0.5)=0.75
But, although both units are running in parallel (not stand-by), only one of them is connected to the load at a time. That is, there is a manual switch no connect the 2nd unit whenever the 1st unit fails. Therefore, there is a “time to switch”=X downtime and the real availability is less than 0.75
Do you guys know how can I calculate analytically the real availability of the system if I know the “time to switch” time? I al looking for a general solution, not the specific solution for the 1+1, 50%+50% case.
Thanks