Michael Rand
February 9th, 2005, 12:04 PM
Hi everyone
I have a product with multiple failure modes (A and B, say).
Let's say I have two subgroups of the products:
Subgroup 1 has adequate data for both A and B
Subgroup 2 has adequate data for A and very little data for B.
Assuming that Subgroup 1 and 2 are operated under different conditions (key), is it ok for me to create failure mode B from Subgroup 1 and use it with failure mode A from Subgroup 2 to come up with Subgroup 2's expected composite failure distribution? Wouldn't I be generating a composite for Subgroup 2 that might not represent an internally consistent set of probabilities of failure?
I have a product with multiple failure modes (A and B, say).
Let's say I have two subgroups of the products:
Subgroup 1 has adequate data for both A and B
Subgroup 2 has adequate data for A and very little data for B.
Assuming that Subgroup 1 and 2 are operated under different conditions (key), is it ok for me to create failure mode B from Subgroup 1 and use it with failure mode A from Subgroup 2 to come up with Subgroup 2's expected composite failure distribution? Wouldn't I be generating a composite for Subgroup 2 that might not represent an internally consistent set of probabilities of failure?